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The QIA exam has 50 questions and runs 1 hours 30 minutes.
These 10 free QIA questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Qualification in Apheresis blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.
A group B, RhD-positive patient has orders for red-cell transfusion and plasma-based therapeutic plasma exchange. The antibody screen is negative. Which donor-component pairing is ABO-compatible for both orders?
Correct answer: A - Group O red cells with group AB plasma
An asymptomatic repeat platelet donor has an automated platelet count of 64,000/µL (64 × 10^9/L) in an EDTA specimen. The analyzer flags platelet clumps, and the blood film shows platelet aggregates. Previous counts were normal. Before deciding eligibility, what is the most useful laboratory step?
Correct answer: D - Recollect using a validated alternative anticoagulant and verify the platelet count.
A patient has new confusion, a platelet count of 18,000/µL (18 × 10^9/L), schistocytes, and undetectable haptoglobin. The hematologist considers immune thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura highly likely. ADAMTS13 testing will not return until tomorrow, but the apheresis team and compatible plasma are available now. Which sequence best preserves diagnostic information without delaying indicated treatment?
Correct answer: D - Obtain a pretreatment ADAMTS13 sample, then begin plasma-replacement exchange without awaiting the result.
An adult with HbSS disease develops multilobar pulmonary infiltrates and worsening hypoxemia requiring high-flow oxygen despite treatment for acute chest syndrome. Hemoglobin is 9.8 g/dL (98 g/L), and HbS is 78%. Antibiotics and respiratory support have been initiated; an exchange team and appropriately matched red cells are immediately available. Which transfusion strategy fits this presentation?
Correct answer: A - Automated red-cell exchange, controlling both HbS fraction and hematocrit
Twenty minutes into plateletpheresis, a donor reports mild tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips. Blood pressure, pulse, and oxygen saturation remain at baseline; there is no wheezing, rash, or muscle spasm. Total calcium is normal, but ionized calcium is 0.99 mmol/L (3.97 mg/dL), below the laboratory interval of 1.10-1.30 mmol/L (4.4-5.2 mg/dL). What is the best initial response?
Correct answer: B - Reduce citrate delivery and administer calcium under the standing order.
During plasma exchange through peripheral access, markedly negative inlet-pressure alarms occur whenever the patient bends the draw arm. Return pressure remains normal, blood pressure is unchanged, and neither access site is painful or swollen. The collection had been running normally with the arm supported. Which action addresses the likely problem first?
Correct answer: C - Reduce inlet flow and reassess the arm, tubing, and draw-needle position.
Two hours after plasma-replacement exchange, a 76-year-old patient with heart failure and chronic kidney disease develops dyspnea and bilateral pulmonary edema. Blood pressure has risen from 126/72 to 174/94 mmHg, jugular venous pressure is elevated, and the complete fluid record shows a positive balance of 850 mL. There is no fever, urticaria, or wheezing. Oxygen and urgent clinical assessment are underway. Which complication best explains the combined findings?
Correct answer: B - Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
The collection prescription for a 75-kg autologous transplant recipient requires at least 3.0 × 10^6 viable CD34-positive cells/kg. The product report lists 240 × 10^6 viable CD34-positive cells, explicitly counted using viable-cell gating, and an overall nucleated-cell viability of 80%. Considering only the prescribed viable CD34-positive cell dose, how should the collection be assessed?
Correct answer: C - 3.20 × 10^6 cells/kg; the prescribed dose has been reached.
An intermittent-flow collection produces a reproducible fall in blood pressure during each draw phase, followed by recovery when blood returns. The procedure is stopped and the patient stabilizes; assessment shows no bleeding and normal ionized calcium. For a later collection, which technical change would most directly reduce the cyclical intravascular volume shifts?
Correct answer: A - Use continuous-flow collection with simultaneous blood withdrawal and return.
A routine allogeneic platelet donor returns four calendar days after a collection yielding 6.4 × 10^11 platelets. Today's platelet count is 225,000/µL (225 × 10^9/L), all other screening requirements are met, and the donor is below the rolling annual collection limit. No dedicated-donor exception applies. Under U.S. federal requirements, which consideration controls today's eligibility?
Correct answer: D - A seven-calendar-day interval applies because the previous yield was at least 6 × 10^11 platelets.
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